Hi everyone,

I have a (maybe) basic question. I have this binominal logistic regression model:

Dependent var: Work full-time (dummy var: 1=work full-time; 0= work part-time)

Independent var: categorial var (1= the first generation; 2=the 2nd generation; 3=3rd+ generation) --> recoded into 3 dummy variables.

Controls for several indicators (sex, age, education,...).

I ran this model twice. The first time with the first generation as the reference group. The second time with the second generation as the reference group).

However, they gave me two different results (same B value (of course, one negative and one positive), but different exp(B)). The first result shows that the 2nd generation is 14% less likely than the 1s generation to work full-time . The second result shows that the first generation is 16% more likely than the 2nd generation to work full-time.

I attach the screenshots of the 2 result tables for you to investigate. My question is why is there this difference? Which number should I take given the fact that I want to see the full-time employment gap between the 1st and 2nd generations (14% or 16%)?

Thank you for your responses.

Anna

Note: for this dependent variable (full-time), the difference between 2 results is only 2%. but for other variables, the difference is much bigger.

I have a (maybe) basic question. I have this binominal logistic regression model:

Dependent var: Work full-time (dummy var: 1=work full-time; 0= work part-time)

Independent var: categorial var (1= the first generation; 2=the 2nd generation; 3=3rd+ generation) --> recoded into 3 dummy variables.

Controls for several indicators (sex, age, education,...).

I ran this model twice. The first time with the first generation as the reference group. The second time with the second generation as the reference group).

However, they gave me two different results (same B value (of course, one negative and one positive), but different exp(B)). The first result shows that the 2nd generation is 14% less likely than the 1s generation to work full-time . The second result shows that the first generation is 16% more likely than the 2nd generation to work full-time.

I attach the screenshots of the 2 result tables for you to investigate. My question is why is there this difference? Which number should I take given the fact that I want to see the full-time employment gap between the 1st and 2nd generations (14% or 16%)?

Thank you for your responses.

Anna

Note: for this dependent variable (full-time), the difference between 2 results is only 2%. but for other variables, the difference is much bigger.

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